What are your thoughts on the Beutewaffen status of French arms that show definitive proof of Polish service? These are usually lumped into a generalized 'Polish arms' category, or are just lumped in with other French arms. French rifles and carbines were acquired by Poland in the interwar period mostly by legal, open market sale, just like many other countries acquired arms that had been used in WWI. French arms definitely accounted for a significant number of small arms in Polish inventory as late as 1938.
Poland's partition in October 1939 between Germany and the USSR resulted in these arms going into either Soviet or German inventory. The Soviets certainly used some, but as second- or third-line arms. The ex-Polish French arms seem to show no typical indications of German rework or even renumbering, unlike French arms that indicate capture in 1940, or Polish Mausers that would have been captured along with French arms.
Would you consider these as Beutewaffen rifles? My own opinion is that they are, in spite of lacking what most of us have come to expect from German-captured arms from other countries. It's hard to imagine that they weren't, given the nature of total conquest of Poland and mass seizure of arms as a result. Unlike Greece or Yugoslavia, there was no continuously active insurgency which would have access to these rifles and would have kept at least some of them out of German hands. The only difference is that unlike rifles captured in France in 1940, the ex-Polish French arms were not modified for the Balle 'N' cartridge adopted by France in the 1930s and remained as they had been left at the end of WWI. Where do you think these fit?
Poland's partition in October 1939 between Germany and the USSR resulted in these arms going into either Soviet or German inventory. The Soviets certainly used some, but as second- or third-line arms. The ex-Polish French arms seem to show no typical indications of German rework or even renumbering, unlike French arms that indicate capture in 1940, or Polish Mausers that would have been captured along with French arms.
Would you consider these as Beutewaffen rifles? My own opinion is that they are, in spite of lacking what most of us have come to expect from German-captured arms from other countries. It's hard to imagine that they weren't, given the nature of total conquest of Poland and mass seizure of arms as a result. Unlike Greece or Yugoslavia, there was no continuously active insurgency which would have access to these rifles and would have kept at least some of them out of German hands. The only difference is that unlike rifles captured in France in 1940, the ex-Polish French arms were not modified for the Balle 'N' cartridge adopted by France in the 1930s and remained as they had been left at the end of WWI. Where do you think these fit?